I would assume there is a REDUCTION in liability risk for the doctor if an apparently benign mole is removed, because removal always reduces the risk of cancer. Taking action to reduce the risk of cancer, even though removal was not indicated, seems like it should favor the doctor in any malpractice suit.
I could maybe accept that there is NO CHANGE in liability risk if an apparently benign mole is removed, but that would still be a head-scratcher to me.
What makes absolutely no sense is the suggestion that there is an INCREASE in liability risk if an apparently benign mole is removed. This is the only situation where I could understand the doctor being unwilling to remove the mole without performing a biopsy. But I am utterly failing to understand how this could possibly be the case.